Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 02:33

What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Kohler's $51M Arizona award terminated by Department of Energy - ABC15 Arizona
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Tom Girardi Sentenced to 7 Years in Prison on His 86th Birthday - Vulture
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How did Nickelback gain a large fan base despite criticism of their music?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.